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JEE Main 2018
Definite Integration
Definite Integration
Hard

Question

Let f and g be continuous functions on [0, a] such that f(x) = f(a – x) and g(x) + g(a – x) = 4, then 0a\int\limits_0^a \, f(x) g(x) dx is equal to :

Options

Solution

Key Concepts and Formulas

  • King Property of Definite Integrals: For a continuous function F(x)F(x) on [0,a][0, a], 0aF(x)dx=0aF(ax)dx\int\limits_0^a F(x) dx = \int\limits_0^a F(a-x) dx.
  • Linearity of Definite Integrals: For continuous functions h1(x)h_1(x) and h2(x)h_2(x) and constants AA and BB, 0a(Ah1(x)±Bh2(x))dx=A0ah1(x)dx±B0ah2(x)dx\int\limits_0^a (A \cdot h_1(x) \pm B \cdot h_2(x)) dx = A \int\limits_0^a h_1(x) dx \pm B \int\limits_0^a h_2(x) dx.

Step-by-Step Solution

Step 1: Define the Integral and Apply the King Property Let the given integral be II. I=0af(x)g(x)dx(Equation 1)I = \int\limits_0^a f(x) g(x) dx \quad \text{(Equation 1)} We apply the King Property of definite integrals, 0aF(x)dx=0aF(ax)dx\int_0^a F(x)dx = \int_0^a F(a-x)dx, with F(x)=f(x)g(x)F(x) = f(x)g(x). This substitution is crucial because the given properties of f(x)f(x) and g(x)g(x) are in terms of (ax)(a-x). I=0af(ax)g(ax)dx(Equation 2)I = \int\limits_0^a f(a-x) g(a-x) dx \quad \text{(Equation 2)}

Step 2: Utilize the Given Function Properties We are given f(x)=f(ax)f(x) = f(a-x) and g(x)+g(ax)=4g(x) + g(a-x) = 4. From the second property, we can express g(ax)g(a-x) as g(ax)=4g(x)g(a-x) = 4 - g(x). Now, substitute f(ax)=f(x)f(a-x) = f(x) and g(ax)=4g(x)g(a-x) = 4 - g(x) into Equation 2. I=0af(x)(4g(x))dxI = \int\limits_0^a f(x) (4 - g(x)) dx This step incorporates the specific characteristics of the functions into the integral, transforming it into a form that can be simplified.

Step 3: Simplify the Integrand and Separate the Integral Expand the integrand: I=0a(4f(x)f(x)g(x))dxI = \int\limits_0^a (4f(x) - f(x)g(x)) dx Using the linearity property of definite integrals, we split the integral into two parts: I=0a4f(x)dx0af(x)g(x)dxI = \int\limits_0^a 4f(x) dx - \int\limits_0^a f(x)g(x) dx The first integral can be simplified by taking the constant 4 outside: I=40af(x)dx0af(x)g(x)dxI = 4 \int\limits_0^a f(x) dx - \int\limits_0^a f(x)g(x) dx Notice that the second integral, 0af(x)g(x)dx\int\limits_0^a f(x)g(x) dx, is precisely our original integral II (from Equation 1). This is a common outcome when applying the King Property and allows us to form an equation for II.

Step 4: Solve for II Substitute II back into the equation from Step 3: I=40af(x)dxII = 4 \int\limits_0^a f(x) dx - I Now, we solve this algebraic equation for II. Add II to both sides: I+I=40af(x)dxI + I = 4 \int\limits_0^a f(x) dx 2I=40af(x)dx2I = 4 \int\limits_0^a f(x) dx Divide by 2 to find the value of II: I=420af(x)dxI = \frac{4}{2} \int\limits_0^a f(x) dx I=20af(x)dxI = 2 \int\limits_0^a f(x) dx This final step isolates II and expresses it in terms of 0af(x)dx\int_0^a f(x)dx, matching one of the given options.


Common Mistakes & Tips

  • Incorrect application of the King Property: Ensure you substitute (ax)(a-x) for every xx in the integrand when applying 0aF(x)dx=0aF(ax)dx\int_0^a F(x)dx = \int_0^a F(a-x)dx.
  • Missing one of the function properties: Both f(x)=f(ax)f(x) = f(a-x) and g(x)+g(ax)=4g(x) + g(a-x) = 4 are essential. A common error is to only use one of them.
  • Algebraic errors: Be careful when rearranging the equation to solve for II. Ensure you correctly add or subtract terms from both sides.

Summary

This problem is solved by strategically applying the King Property of definite integrals. By transforming the integrand using 0aF(x)dx=0aF(ax)dx\int_0^a F(x)dx = \int_0^a F(a-x)dx, we create an opportunity to use the given properties of f(x)f(x) and g(x)g(x). Substituting f(ax)=f(x)f(a-x)=f(x) and g(ax)=4g(x)g(a-x)=4-g(x) into the transformed integral leads to an equation where the original integral II appears on both sides. Solving this equation algebraically yields the final result.

The final answer is \boxed{\text{2\int\limits_0^a \, f(x)dx}}.

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