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JEE Main 2021
Statistics & Probability
Probability
Easy

Question

Two cards are drawn successively with replacement from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. Let X denote the random variable of number of aces obtained in the two drawn cards. Then P(X = 1) + P (X = 2) equals :

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Solution

Key Concepts and Formulas

  • Binomial Probability Distribution: This distribution is used for a sequence of independent trials (called Bernoulli trials) where each trial has only two possible outcomes (success or failure), and the probability of success remains constant across trials.

    • In this problem:
      • Trial: Drawing a single card.
      • Success: Drawing an Ace.
      • Failure: Drawing a Non-Ace.
      • Number of trials (n): 2 (since two cards are drawn).
      • Random Variable (X): The number of aces obtained in nn trials.
    • The crucial condition for using binomial distribution is that the trials must be independent. This is satisfied because cards are drawn with replacement.
  • Binomial Probability Formula: The probability of getting exactly kk successes in nn independent Bernoulli trials is given by: P(X=k)=(nk)pkqnkP(X=k) = \binom{n}{k} p^k q^{n-k} where:

    • nn is the total number of trials.
    • kk is the number of successes desired.
    • pp is the probability of success in a single trial.
    • qq is the probability of failure in a single trial, and q=1pq = 1 - p.
    • (nk)=n!k!(nk)!\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!} is the binomial coefficient, which represents the number of distinct ways to achieve kk successes in nn trials.
  • Basic Probability Formula: The probability of an event is calculated as: P(Event)=Number of Favorable OutcomesTotal Number of Possible OutcomesP(\text{Event}) = \frac{\text{Number of Favorable Outcomes}}{\text{Total Number of Possible Outcomes}}


Step-by-Step Solution

Step 1: Determine Basic Probabilities for a Single Draw and Identify Binomial Parameters

First, we need to find the probability of drawing an Ace (success) and a Non-Ace (failure) from a standard 52-card deck for a single draw. This will give us our pp and qq values.

  • Total number of cards in the deck = 52.
  • Number of Aces = 4.
  • Number of Non-Aces = 524=4852 - 4 = 48.

Now, we calculate the probabilities for a single draw:

  • Probability of drawing an Ace (p): This is our probability of success. p=P(Ace)=Number of AcesTotal cards=452=113p = P(\text{Ace}) = \frac{\text{Number of Aces}}{\text{Total cards}} = \frac{4}{52} = \frac{1}{13}
  • Probability of drawing a Non-Ace (q): This is our probability of failure. q=P(Non-Ace)=Number of Non-AcesTotal cards=4852=1213q = P(\text{Non-Ace}) = \frac{\text{Number of Non-Aces}}{\text{Total cards}} = \frac{48}{52} = \frac{12}{13}
    • Verification: p+q=113+1213=1p + q = \frac{1}{13} + \frac{12}{13} = 1, which is correct.

For the binomial distribution, we also identify:

  • Number of trials (n): We draw two cards, so n=2n=2.
  • Random Variable (X): Number of aces obtained. We need to find P(X=1)P(X=1) and P(X=2)P(X=2).

Step 2: Calculate P(X = 1) - Probability of Exactly One Ace

We want to find the probability of getting exactly one Ace in two draws. Here, n=2n=2, k=1k=1, p=113p=\frac{1}{13}, and q=1213q=\frac{12}{13}. Using the binomial probability formula: P(X=1)=(21)p1q21=(21)p1q1P(X=1) = \binom{2}{1} p^1 q^{2-1} = \binom{2}{1} p^1 q^1 Let's compute the binomial coefficient: (21)=2!1!(21)!=2!1!1!=2×11×1=2\binom{2}{1} = \frac{2!}{1!(2-1)!} = \frac{2!}{1!1!} = \frac{2 \times 1}{1 \times 1} = 2 This coefficient indicates there are 2 ways to get one Ace in two draws (Ace then Non-Ace, or Non-Ace then Ace).

Now, substitute the values into the formula: P(X=1)=2×(113)1×(1213)1P(X=1) = 2 \times \left(\frac{1}{13}\right)^1 \times \left(\frac{12}{13}\right)^1 P(X=1)=2×113×1213P(X=1) = 2 \times \frac{1}{13} \times \frac{12}{13} P(X=1)=24169P(X=1) = \frac{24}{169}

  • Alternatively (without the binomial formula, for conceptual understanding): To get exactly one Ace, the possible sequences are (Ace on 1st, Non-Ace on 2nd) or (Non-Ace on 1st, Ace on 2nd). Since draws are independent:
    • P(Ace, Non-Ace)=P(Ace)×P(Non-Ace)=113×1213=12169P(\text{Ace, Non-Ace}) = P(\text{Ace}) \times P(\text{Non-Ace}) = \frac{1}{13} \times \frac{12}{13} = \frac{12}{169}
    • P(Non-Ace, Ace)=P(Non-Ace)×P(Ace)=1213×113=12169P(\text{Non-Ace, Ace}) = P(\text{Non-Ace}) \times P(\text{Ace}) = \frac{12}{13} \times \frac{1}{13} = \frac{12}{169} Since these are mutually exclusive events, we sum their probabilities: P(X=1)=12169+12169=24169P(X=1) = \frac{12}{169} + \frac{12}{169} = \frac{24}{169} Both methods yield the same result.

Step 3: Calculate P(X = 2) - Probability of Exactly Two Aces

We want to find the probability of getting exactly two Aces in two draws. Here, n=2n=2, k=2k=2, p=113p=\frac{1}{13}, and q=1213q=\frac{12}{13}. Using the binomial probability formula: P(X=2)=(22)p2q22=(22)p2q0P(X=2) = \binom{2}{2} p^2 q^{2-2} = \binom{2}{2} p^2 q^0 Let's compute the binomial coefficient: (22)=2!2!(22)!=2!2!0!=22×1=1\binom{2}{2} = \frac{2!}{2!(2-2)!} = \frac{2!}{2!0!} = \frac{2}{2 \times 1} = 1 This coefficient indicates there is only 1 way to get two Aces in two draws (Ace then Ace). Note that 0!=10! = 1.

Now, substitute the values into the formula: P(X=2)=1×(113)2×(1213)0P(X=2) = 1 \times \left(\frac{1}{13}\right)^2 \times \left(\frac{12}{13}\right)^0 P(X=2)=1×1169×1P(X=2) = 1 \times \frac{1}{169} \times 1 P(X=2)=1169P(X=2) = \frac{1}{169}

  • Alternatively (without the binomial formula, for conceptual understanding): To get exactly two Aces, the only possible sequence is (Ace on 1st, Ace on 2nd). Since draws are independent: P(Ace, Ace)=P(Ace)×P(Ace)=113×113=1169P(\text{Ace, Ace}) = P(\text{Ace}) \times P(\text{Ace}) = \frac{1}{13} \times \frac{1}{13} = \frac{1}{169} Both methods yield the same result.

Step 4: Sum the Probabilities P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

The problem asks for the sum P(X=1)+P(X=2)P(X=1) + P(X=2). We add the probabilities calculated in Step 2 and Step 3: P(X=1)+P(X=2)=24169+1169P(X=1) + P(X=2) = \frac{24}{169} + \frac{1}{169} P(X=1)+P(X=2)=24+1169P(X=1) + P(X=2) = \frac{24+1}{169} P(X=1)+P(X=2)=25169P(X=1) + P(X=2) = \frac{25}{169}


Common Mistakes & Tips

  • "With Replacement" vs. "Without Replacement": Always check this crucial detail. "With replacement" implies independence, making binomial distribution applicable. "Without replacement" implies dependence, requiring a different approach (like hypergeometric distribution or conditional probability).
  • Understanding (nk)\binom{n}{k}: Remember that the binomial coefficient accounts for all the different orders in which kk successes can occur within nn trials. If you're calculating probabilities of specific sequences (like P(A,N)), you need to sum them up. The binomial formula simplifies this by calculating the sum directly.
  • Simplifying Fractions Early: Reducing fractions like 452\frac{4}{52} to 113\frac{1}{13} at the beginning makes subsequent calculations much simpler and reduces the chance of arithmetic errors.

Summary

This problem required us to calculate the probability of obtaining at least one Ace when drawing two cards successively with replacement. By identifying the problem as a binomial distribution scenario due to independent trials (with replacement), we first determined the probability of drawing an Ace (p=1/13p = 1/13) and a Non-Ace (q=12/13q = 12/13). We then used the binomial probability formula to calculate P(X=1)P(X=1) (exactly one Ace) and P(X=2)P(X=2) (exactly two Aces) and summed these probabilities to find the required result. The sum P(X=1)+P(X=2)P(X=1) + P(X=2) evaluates to 25169\frac{25}{169}.

The final answer is \boxed{\text{25 \over 169}}, which corresponds to option (A).

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