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JEE Main 2019
Definite Integration
Definite Integration
Hard

Question

ππ2x(1+sinx)1+cos2xdx\int_{ - \pi }^\pi {{{2x\left( {1 + \sin x} \right)} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx is

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Solution

Key Concepts and Formulas

  1. Symmetric Limits Property: For an integral aaf(x)dx\int_{-a}^a f(x) dx:
    • If f(x)f(x) is odd (f(x)=f(x)f(-x) = -f(x)), the integral is 0.
    • If f(x)f(x) is even (f(x)=f(x)f(-x) = f(x)), the integral is 20af(x)dx2\int_0^a f(x) dx.
  2. King Property (Property 4): For an integral 0af(x)dx\int_0^a f(x) dx, we have 0af(x)dx=0af(ax)dx\int_0^a f(x) dx = \int_0^a f(a-x) dx.
  3. Trigonometric Identities: sin(πx)=sinx\sin(\pi - x) = \sin x, cos(πx)=cosx\cos(\pi - x) = -\cos x.
  4. Standard Integral: 1a2+x2dx=1atan1(xa)+C\int \frac{1}{a^2 + x^2} dx = \frac{1}{a} \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{a}\right) + C.

Step-by-Step Solution

Let the given integral be II. I=ππ2x(1+sinx)1+cos2xdxI = \int_{ - \pi }^\pi {{{2x\left( {1 + \sin x} \right)} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx

Step 1: Decomposing the Integrand and Applying Symmetric Limit Properties

We can split the integrand into two terms: I = \int_{ - \pi }^\pi {\left( {{{2x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} + {{2x\sin x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} \right)} dx I=ππ2x1+cos2xdx+ππ2xsinx1+cos2xdxI = \int_{ - \pi }^\pi {{{2x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx + \int_{ - \pi }^\pi {{{2x\sin x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx

Let's analyze the parity of each integrand over the interval [π,π][-\pi, \pi].

  • For the first integral, let f1(x)=2x1+cos2xf_1(x) = \frac{2x}{1 + \cos^2 x}. f1(x)=2(x)1+cos2(x)=2x1+cos2x=f1(x)f_1(-x) = \frac{2(-x)}{1 + \cos^2(-x)} = \frac{-2x}{1 + \cos^2 x} = -f_1(x). Since f1(x)f_1(x) is an odd function, ππ2x1+cos2xdx=0\int_{ - \pi }^\pi {{{2x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx = 0.

  • For the second integral, let f2(x)=2xsinx1+cos2xf_2(x) = \frac{2x\sin x}{1 + \cos^2 x}. f2(x)=2(x)sin(x)1+cos2(x)=2(x)(sinx)1+cos2x=2xsinx1+cos2x=f2(x)f_2(-x) = \frac{2(-x)\sin(-x)}{1 + \cos^2(-x)} = \frac{2(-x)(-\sin x)}{1 + \cos^2 x} = \frac{2x\sin x}{1 + \cos^2 x} = f_2(x). Since f2(x)f_2(x) is an even function, ππ2xsinx1+cos2xdx=20π2xsinx1+cos2xdx=40πxsinx1+cos2xdx\int_{ - \pi }^\pi {{{2x\sin x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx = 2\int_0^\pi {{{2x\sin x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx = 4\int_0^\pi {{{x\sin x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx.

Thus, the integral II simplifies to: I=0+40πxsinx1+cos2xdxI = 0 + 4\int_0^\pi {{{x\sin x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx Let I=0πxsinx1+cos2xdxI' = \int_0^\pi {{{x\sin x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx, so I=4II = 4I'.

Step 2: Applying the King Property

We apply the King Property (0af(x)dx=0af(ax)dx\int_0^a f(x) dx = \int_0^a f(a-x) dx) to II' with a=πa = \pi. I=0π(πx)sin(πx)1+cos2(πx)dxI' = \int_0^\pi {{{\left( {\pi - x} \right)\sin \left( {\pi - x} \right)} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}\left( {\pi - x} \right)}}} dx Using sin(πx)=sinx\sin(\pi - x) = \sin x and cos(πx)=cosx\cos(\pi - x) = -\cos x (so cos2(πx)=cos2x\cos^2(\pi - x) = \cos^2 x): I=0π(πx)sinx1+cos2xdxI' = \int_0^\pi {{{\left( {\pi - x} \right)\sin x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx

Step 3: Combining the Integrals for II'

We have two expressions for II':

  1. I=0πxsinx1+cos2xdxI' = \int_0^\pi {{{x\sin x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx
  2. I=0π(πx)sinx1+cos2xdxI' = \int_0^\pi {{{\left( {\pi - x} \right)\sin x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx

Adding these two equations: 2I=0πxsinx1+cos2xdx+0π(πx)sinx1+cos2xdx2I' = \int_0^\pi {{{x\sin x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx + \int_0^\pi {{{\left( {\pi - x} \right)\sin x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx 2I=0π(xsinx1+cos2x+(πx)sinx1+cos2x)dx2I' = \int_0^\pi {\left( {{{x\sin x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}} + {{(\pi - x)\sin x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} \right)} dx 2I=0π(xsinx+πsinxxsinx)1+cos2xdx2I' = \int_0^\pi {{{\left( {x\sin x + \pi \sin x - x\sin x} \right)} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx 2I=0ππsinx1+cos2xdx2I' = \int_0^\pi {{{\pi \sin x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx 2I=π0πsinx1+cos2xdx2I' = \pi \int_0^\pi {{{\sin x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx So, I=π20πsinx1+cos2xdxI' = \frac{\pi}{2} \int_0^\pi {{{\sin x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx.

Now, substituting this back into I=4II = 4I': I=4(π20πsinx1+cos2xdx)=2π0πsinx1+cos2xdxI = 4 \left( \frac{\pi}{2} \int_0^\pi {{{\sin x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx \right) = 2\pi \int_0^\pi {{{\sin x} \over {1 + {{\cos }^2}x}}} dx

Step 4: Substitution and Evaluation

Let t=cosxt = \cos x. Then dt=sinxdxdt = -\sin x \, dx, which means sinxdx=dt\sin x \, dx = -dt. We need to change the limits of integration:

  • When x=0x = 0, t=cos(0)=1t = \cos(0) = 1.
  • When x=πx = \pi, t=cos(π)=1t = \cos(\pi) = -1.

Substitute these into the integral: I=2π1111+t2(dt)I = 2\pi \int_1^{-1} {{1 \over {1 + {t^2}}}} (-dt) I=2π1111+t2dtI = -2\pi \int_1^{-1} {{1 \over {1 + {t^2}}}} dt Using the property abf(x)dx=baf(x)dx\int_a^b f(x) dx = -\int_b^a f(x) dx, we reverse the limits: I=2π1111+t2dtI = 2\pi \int_{-1}^1 {{1 \over {1 + {t^2}}}} dt

The integral of 11+t2\frac{1}{1+t^2} is tan1t\tan^{-1}t. I=2π[tan1t]11I = 2\pi \left[ {\tan^{ - 1}t} \right]_{-1}^1 I=2π(tan1(1)tan1(1))I = 2\pi \left( {\tan^{ - 1}(1) - \tan^{ - 1}(-1)} \right) We know tan1(1)=π4\tan^{-1}(1) = \frac{\pi}{4} and tan1(1)=π4\tan^{-1}(-1) = -\frac{\pi}{4}. I=2π(π4(π4))I = 2\pi \left( {\frac{\pi}{4} - \left( {-\frac{\pi}{4}} \right)} \right) I=2π(π4+π4)I = 2\pi \left( {\frac{\pi}{4} + \frac{\pi}{4}} \right) I=2π(2π4)I = 2\pi \left( {\frac{2\pi}{4}} \right) I=2π(π2)I = 2\pi \left( {\frac{\pi}{2}} \right) I=π2I = \pi^2

Common Mistakes & Tips

  • Incorrect Parity Analysis: Ensure that when checking for odd/even functions, you correctly apply the properties of trigonometric functions for negative arguments (sin(x)=sinx\sin(-x) = -\sin x, cos(x)=cosx\cos(-x) = \cos x).
  • Algebraic Errors in Combining Integrals: Be meticulous when adding the two expressions for II' after applying the King Property. The simplification of xsinxx\sin x terms is key.
  • Limit Changes in Substitution: Always remember to change the limits of integration when performing a substitution. Failure to do so will lead to an incorrect result.

Summary

The problem is solved by first splitting the integral and applying the symmetric limits property to eliminate one part of the integral by identifying it as an odd function. The remaining integral, which involves an even function, is simplified by applying the King Property. This allows for combining two forms of the integral, leading to a significant simplification. Finally, a trigonometric substitution is used to evaluate the resulting standard integral, yielding the final answer.

The final answer is π2\boxed{{\pi^2}}.

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